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bidual of an infinite dimensional vector space is bigger than the vector space itself
@Daniel McLaury
8 upvotesWell, the dual of an infinite-dimensional vector space is already larger that the original space, so of course the dual of the dual will be even larger. (The English term for an espace vectoriel is a “vector space,” rather than a “vectorial space.”)
To see that the dual is larger, take some basis $\beta$ for your vector space $V$. Elements of $V$ consist of finite sums of the form $\lambda_1 e_1 + \cdots + \lambda_n e_n$, where the $e_i \in \beta$. On the other hand, $V^*$ contains everything of the form $\sum_{e \in \beta} c_e e^\ast$ — evaluating such a gadget at an element of $V$ will still produce a finite sum, since only finitely many $e_i$ appear in any given element of $V$.
When the basis is finite, of course, there’s no difference between a finite sum and an arbitrary one. When it’s infinite, though, the sets have different cardinalities.
@Alexandre Borovik
2 upvotes
It is a very deep question indeed. I have to admit that I cannot give any intuitive explanation which is simpler than a reduction to some basic set theory.
To make the question as close tothe set theory as possible, let us restrict our attention to the case of a vector space $V$ over the field $ \mathbb{F}_2$ of two elements. If my memory does not betray me, it is an old result by Paul Eklof that existence of a basis in an arbitrary vector space over $\mathbb{F}_2$ is equivalent to the Axiom of Choice (it is easy in one direction: the Axiom of Choice, in the form of the Zorn Lemma, impliesthe existence of a basis. So, let us accept it, and let $B$ be a basis in $V, $ which means that every $v\in V$ is defined by its support in $B$, t hat is, by the (finite) set of elements in $B$ which sum up to $v$. Therefore $V$ has the same cardinality as the set of finite subsets of $B$; if $B$ is infinite, than it is easy to prove that the set of all finite subsets of $B$ has the same cardinality as $B, $hence $V$ has the same cardinality as $B$.
Now let us look at the dual space $V ^ *$, that is, the set of all linear functionals $\alpha: V \to \mathbb{F}_2$. Each $\alpha$ is uniquely determined by its support in $B$, that is, by the set $\{\, b \in B \mid \alpha(b) = 1\,\}$. Therefore $V^*$ is in one-to-one correspondence with the set 2^B of all subsets in $B$. But it is a classical result by Cantor that $2^B$ has larger cardinality than $B$ and hence $V^*$ has larger cardinality than $V$. Of course, the cardinality of the bidual $V^{**}$ is even larger.
The case of an arbitrary field $F$ can be handled in a similar way, but we will need to deal with the cardinality of the set $F^B$.
Is this intuitive? Well, it is intuiteve for me because it was the first thought that crossed my mind. But I am not a set theorists and I have no idea whether the same can be proven without the Axiom of Choice. Also, the term “infinite dimensional vector space is ambigous: does it mean “ a vector space without a finite basis” or “a vector space with an infinite basis”? And can anything that intimately involves the Axiom of choice be called intuitive? |
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