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Letting $b_i=a_i/(1-k_0)$ -- clearly if $a_i$ generate $\Bbb{Q}$ then $b_i$ also generate it. Also we can assume that $a\not=b_i$ for any $i$ -- we get $$\sum_{i=1}^nb_i\cdot k_i=\dfrac{1}{1-k_0}\sum_{i=1}^na_i\cdot k_i=a.$$
He said “$b_i$ generates $\Bbb Q$”. But I think he should write “$S\setminus\{a,a_1,\cdots,a_n\}\cup\{b_1,\cdots,b_n\}$ generates $\Bbb Q$” ?
Even if he proved “$S\setminus\{a,a_1,\cdots,a_n\}\cup\{b_1,\cdots,b_n\}$ generates $\Bbb Q$”, we want to find a proper subset of $S$ that still generates $\Bbb Q$. But here $b_i\notin S$, which cannot to prove the theorem.
Comparing with other answers: @Julian Rosen showed $S\setminus\{a\}$ which is a proper subset of $S$, generates $\Bbb Q$, so the theorem is proved. |
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