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hbghlyj
Posted at 2023-5-3 04:21:12
来自tigertooth4的博客
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A Lambert curve is a curve given by $C =\{(z,w) \; | \; z = w e^w\} \subset \mathbb{C}^* \times \mathbb{C}^*.$
Note that the above equation defines \(w\) as an implicit function of \(z\). Such functions are not unique, we call them the Lambert W function.
By inverse function theorem, \(w\) can be written locally as a function of \(z\). Note that there are two branches, the branches we care about is called \(w_0\). From wikipedia, one could find the asymptotic expansion of \(w_0\) w.r.t. \(z\), which is\[w_0(z) = \sum_{k\ge 1}\frac{(-k)^{k-1}}{k!}x^k\]Now if we redefine the Lambert curve to be \(x = y e^{-y}\), and define\[t = 1 + \sum_{k=1}^\infty \frac{k^k}{k!}x^k,\]how the expression \(x=y e^{-y}\) may be changed when we substitute \(y\) by \(t\)?
Notice that the Taylor expansions of \(w_0(z)\) and \(t(x)\) are alike, it is not so hard to establish a functional relationship between the two. So let's start by finding a Taylor series of \(y\) w.r.t. \(x\). It is easy to see two definitions of Lambert curves are identified if we introduce the transform \(y(x) = -w_0(x)\). So \(y\) can be expand to a Taylor series:\[y(x)=\sum_{k\ge 1}\frac{k^{k-1}}{k!}x^k\]By term-by-term differentiation, we know \(x y’(x) = t-1\). But from another point of view, by implicit differentiation, we find \(1 = xy’(y^{-1} - 1)\). So \(y = 1-t^{-1}\). And, if written in the new parameter \(t\), Lambert curve can be formatted as$$x = (1-t^{-1}) e^{-(1-t^{-1})}.$$ |
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