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original poster
hbghlyj
posted 2025-7-25 22:33
Projective modules are flat
Suppose $M$ is a flat $R$-module, and $P$ is a direct summand of $M$. This means there exists an $R$-module $Q$ such that $M \cong P \oplus Q$.
Let $\alpha: A \to B$ be an injective $R$-module homomorphism. We need to show that $P \otimes_R \alpha: P \otimes_R A \to P \otimes_R B$ is injective.
We have the natural isomorphism $(P \oplus Q) \otimes_R A \cong (P \otimes_R A) \oplus (Q \otimes_R A)$.
Similarly, $(P \oplus Q) \otimes_R B \cong (P \otimes_R B) \oplus (Q \otimes_R B)$.
The map $M \otimes_R \alpha$ can be written as:
$(P \oplus Q) \otimes_R \alpha: (P \otimes_R A) \oplus (Q \otimes_R A) \to (P \otimes_R B) \oplus (Q \otimes_R B)$
which acts as $(P \otimes_R \alpha) \oplus (Q \otimes_R \alpha)$.
Since $M \cong P \oplus Q$ is flat, the map $(P \otimes_R \alpha) \oplus (Q \otimes_R \alpha)$ is injective.
If an element $(x, y) \in (P \otimes_R A) \oplus (Q \otimes_R A)$ is mapped to $0$, i.e., $((P \otimes_R \alpha)(x), (Q \otimes_R \alpha)(y)) = (0,0)$, then it implies that $(P \otimes_R \alpha)(x) = 0$ and $(Q \otimes_R \alpha)(y) = 0$.
Since $(P \otimes_R \alpha) \oplus (Q \otimes_R \alpha)$ is injective, $(x, y) = (0,0)$, which means $x=0$ and $y=0$.
In particular, if $x \in P \otimes_R A$ is such that $(P \otimes_R \alpha)(x) = 0$, then taking $y=0$, we have $(x,0)$ mapped to $(0,0)$, which implies $x=0$.
Therefore, $P \otimes_R \alpha$ is injective.
Thus, any direct summand of a flat module is flat.
Since every projective module is a direct summand of a free module, and we have shown that free modules are flat and flatness is preserved under direct summands, it follows directly that every projective module is flat. |
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